The percentage rates of home ownership for 8 randomly selected states are listed below. Assuming that the percentage rates follow a normal distribution, construct a 99% confidence interval for the population standard deviation for the percentage rate of home ownership. Interpret your results.

The percentage rates of home ownership for 8 randomly selected states are listed below. Assuming that the percentage rates follow a normal distribution, construct a 99% confidence interval for the population standard deviation for the percentage rate of home ownership. Interpret your results.

Answer: 2.60% < s < 11.77%

Ten randomly selected people were asked how long they slept at night. The mean time was 7.1 hours, and the standard deviation was 0.78 hour. Assume that the data is normally distributed.

Ten randomly selected people were asked how long they slept at night. The mean time was 7.1 hours, and the standard deviation was 0.78 hour. Assume that the data is normally distributed. 

a. For a 95% confidence level, find the margin of error. Round to two decimal places.
a. Construct a 95% confidence interval of the mean time. Interpret your results.


Answer:

a. E = 0.56
b. 6.54 hours < m < 7.66 hours

The national average SAT score (for Verbal and Math) is 1019. If we assume a normal distribution with sigma = 100, a. what SAT score is in the 85th percentile? b. what is the probability that a randomly selected score exceeds 1200?

The national average SAT score (for Verbal and Math) is 1019. If we assume a normal distribution with sigma = 100,
a. what SAT score is in the 85th percentile?
b. what is the probability that a randomly selected score exceeds 1200?

Answer:

a. 1123
b. 0.0351

The average age of a vehicle registered in the United States is 8 years, or 96 months. Assume the standard deviation is 16 months. If a random sample of 36 vehicles is selected, find the probability that the mean of their age is between 90 and 100 months.

The average age of a vehicle registered in the United States is 8 years, or 96 months. Assume the standard deviation is 16 months. If a random sample of 36 vehicles is selected, find the probability that the mean of their age is between 90 and 100 months.

Answer: 0.9210

The amount of snowfall falling in a certain mountain range is normally distributed with a mean of 70 inches, and a standard deviation of 10 inches. What is the probability that the mean annual snowfall during 25 randomly picked years will exceed 72.8 inches?

The amount of snowfall falling in a certain mountain range is normally distributed with a mean of 70 inches, and a standard deviation of 10 inches. What is the probability that the mean annual snowfall during 25 randomly picked years will exceed 72.8 inches?

Answer: 0.0808

Find the area under the standard normal curve between z = 1.23 and z = 1.90.

Find the area under the standard normal curve between z = 1.23 and z = 1.90.

Answer: 0.0806

Find the area under the standard normal curve to the right z = 1.92.

Find the area under the standard normal curve to the right z = 1.92.

Answer: 0.0274

Find the area under the standard normal curve to the left of z = 1.31.

Find the area under the standard normal curve to the left of z = 1.31.

Answer: 0.9049

A fast-food drive-thru serves an average of 5 customers per hour. Find the probability that in the next hour at most four customers arrive.

A fast-food drive-thru serves an average of 5 customers per hour. Find the probability that in the next hour at most four customers arrive.

Answer:

X<_4 P(1,2,3,4)
0.440

A man could complete 3 files a day on an average. Find the probability that he can complete 5 files the next day.

A man could complete 3 files a day on an average. Find the probability that he can complete 5 files the next day.

Answer:


U=3 X=5
0.101

A test consists of 10 true/false questions. To pass a test, the student must answer at least six questions correctly. If a student guesses on each question, a. What is the probability that the student will pass the test? b. What is the probability that the student answers at least one question correctly

A test consists of 10 true/false questions. To pass a test, the student must answer at least six questions correctly. If a student guesses on each question,
a. What is the probability that the student will pass the test?
b. What is the probability that the student answers at least one question correctly

Answer:

a. 0.337
b. 0.999

If the probability that it will rain tomorrow is 0.20, what is the probability that it won't rain tomorrow? Would you recommend taking an umbrella

If the probability that it will rain tomorrow is 0.20, what is the probability that it won't rain tomorrow? Would you recommend taking an umbrella

Answer: 0.80

At a used-book sale, adult books and children's books are sold. Of the adult books, 70 are nonfiction and 30 are fiction. Of the children's books, 60 are nonfiction and 100 are fiction. If a book is selected at random, a. Find the probability that the book is a children's book. b. Find the probability that the book us nonfiction.

At a used-book sale, adult books and children's books are sold. Of the adult books, 70 are nonfiction and 30 are fiction. Of the children's books, 60 are nonfiction and 100 are fiction. If a book is selected at random,
a. Find the probability that the book is a children's book.
b. Find the probability that the book us nonfiction.

Answer:

a. 8/13
b. ½

Andrew asked seven of his friends how many cousins they had. The results are listed below. Find the Mean, Median, Range, Variance and Standard Deviation of the sample data. Round to tenths. 15, 12, 5, 14, 4, 4, 6

Andrew asked seven of his friends how many cousins they had. The results are listed below. Find the Mean, Median, Range, Variance and Standard Deviation of the sample data. Round to tenths.
15, 12, 5, 14, 4, 4, 6

Answer:

mean = 8.6

median = 6

range = 11

variance = 24.0

standard deviation = 4.9

The average GPA of all college students in the United States today

The average GPA of all college students in the United States today

Answer: parameter

A random sample of 100 subscribers and determine that their mean income is $27,500.

A random sample of 100 subscribers and determine that their mean income is $27,500.

Answer: statistic

A soil mass fails because of the presence of

A soil mass fails because of the presence of

Answer: A critical combination of normal and shear stress

The coefficient of consolidation of soil is a measure of

The coefficient of consolidation of soil is a measure of

Answer: Rate of primary consolidation

For normally non consolidated clays, the OCR =

For normally non consolidated clays, the OCR =

Answer: 1

At the end of consolidation of a clayey soil

At the end of consolidation of a clayey soil

Answer:

Total stress increase = effective stress increase
Excess pore water pressure = 0

When a saturated soil layer is subjected to a stress increase, the pore water pressure initially

When a saturated soil layer is subjected to a stress increase, the pore water pressure initially

Answer: Increases

The contact pressure at the base of a uniformly loaded, perfectly rigid footing resting on a saturate clay will be

The contact pressure at the base of a uniformly loaded, perfectly rigid footing resting on a saturate clay will be

Answer: Smaller at the center of the footing

Occurs without change in the initial moisture content

Occurs without change in the initial moisture content

Answer: Elastic settlement

Results from the rearrangement of the soils fabric into a denser configuration

Results from the rearrangement of the soils fabric into a denser configuration

Answer: Secondary consolidation

Results from the dissipation of excess pore water pressure

Results from the dissipation of excess pore water pressure

Answer: Primary consolidation

If the influence chart developed by Newmark is used to determine the vertical stress at any point below a uniformly loaded flexible area, then the increase in the pressure at the point is

If the influence chart developed by Newmark is used to determine the vertical stress at any point below a uniformly loaded flexible area, then the increase in the pressure at the point is

Answer: Directly proportional to the influence value

Boussinesq solved the problem of stresses produced at any point as a result of a point load on the surface of an infinitely large half-space in

Boussinesq solved the problem of stresses produced at any point as a result of a point load on the surface of an infinitely large half-space in

Answer: Homogeneous, elastic, isotropic medium

A uniformly loaded, perfectly flexible footing resting on a saturated clay will have a

A uniformly loaded, perfectly flexible footing resting on a saturated clay will have a

Answer: Sagging elastic settlement profile

If piezometers are places at different points along an equipotential line, the water level will rise to

If piezometers are places at different points along an equipotential line, the water level will rise to

Answer: The same level in all of them

If water is seeping through a soil layer in the vertically upward direction, the effective stress at any point within the soil

If water is seeping through a soil layer in the vertically upward direction, the effective stress at any point within the soil

Answer: Will be lower than the static case without seepage

The stress carried by water in voids, called pore water pressure, at a point within a saturated soils mass acts

The stress carried by water in voids, called pore water pressure, at a point within a saturated soils mass acts

Answer: With equal intensities in all directions

A constant head test is more appropriate for:

A constant head test is more appropriate for:

Answer: Coarse-grained soils

A falling head test is more appropriate for:

A falling head test is more appropriate for:

Answer: Fine-grained soils

LL - PL =

LL - PL =

Answer: PI

The moisture content of soil at which the maximum dry unit weigh is attained is referred to as the:

The moisture content of soil at which the maximum dry unit weigh is attained is referred to as the:

Answer: optimum moisture content

Using USCS, dual symbols are needed with:

Using USCS, dual symbols are needed with:

Answer: sands with 5-12% fines and gravels with 5012% fines

AASHTO soil classifications, from A-4, A-5, A-6 and A-7 is:

AASHTO soil classifications, from A-4, A-5, A-6 and A-7 is:

Answer: fair to poor

Soil classification systems are mainly based upon:

Soil classification systems are mainly based upon:

Answer: Grain-size distribution and and plasticity characteristics of soils

Moisture content of soil at which the volume of soil mass ceases to change is

Moisture content of soil at which the volume of soil mass ceases to change is

Answer: Shrinkage limit

Moisture content of soil at the point of transition from semi solid to plastic state is:

Moisture content of soil at the point of transition from semi solid to plastic state is:

Answer: Plastic limit

Physical properties of soil depend on:

Physical properties of soil depend on:

Answer: chemical composition, grain size and shape

Lower numbers in the AASHTO classification system perform (better/worse)?

Lower numbers in the AASHTO classification system perform (better/worse)?

Answer: Better

How doe CAP activate gene expression?

How doe CAP activate gene expression?

Answer: Recruits RNA Pol to the promoter by binding to the CTD tail.

Why is there no effect if the Operator is supplied in trans (Lac Operon expression remains Constitutive)?

Why is there no effect if the Operator is supplied in trans (Lac Operon expression remains Constitutive)?

Answer: The operator is Cis Dominant

Diploid analyses demonstrated that _____ mutations can be fixed by introducing plasmid but ______ mutations can't.

Diploid analyses demonstrated that _____ mutations can be fixed by introducing plasmid but ______ mutations can't.

Answer: Lac I, O

Why was Monod able to to introduce and extra copy of the Lac Operon into bacteria?

Why was Monod able to to introduce and extra copy of the Lac Operon into bacteria?

Answer: Bacteria are Haploid

What would be the result if the Lac Repressor is not able to bind allolactose?

What would be the result if the Lac Repressor is not able to bind allolactose?

Answer: The Lac Operon will NEVER be expressed

What happens to the Lac Repressor when it binds allolactose?

What happens to the Lac Repressor when it binds allolactose?

Answer: It undergoes conformational change that prevents it from binding DNA

Why would most cells be colorless when plated on glucose + X-Gal?

Why would most cells be colorless when plated on glucose + X-Gal?

Answer: X-Gal is not and Inducer of the Lac Operon

Lac I is constitutively expressed. What does this mean?

Lac I is constitutively expressed. What does this mean?

Answer: Lac I has its own promoter so the repressor is always made, but can only bind the operator in the absence of Lactose

Why is the Lac Operon considered a polycistronic mRNA sequence.

Why is the Lac Operon considered a polycistronic mRNA sequence.

Answer: It contains multiple genes that are expressed all together or not at all.

What would be the genotype of a mutant that results in expression of B-Gal when Lactose is absent?

What would be the genotype of a mutant that results in expression of B-Gal when Lactose is absent?

Answer: I-

The somatosensory cortex has _________ organization.

The somatosensory cortex has _________ organization.

Answer: columnar

Touch in the receptive field _____, touch outside the receptive field________, touch in the surround ______.

Touch in the receptive field _____, touch outside the receptive field________, touch in the surround ______.

Answer: excites, no effect, inhibits

S1 receives touch information from the _______ side of the body and S2 receives its main input from _____ and maps _____ sides of the body.

S1 receives touch information from the _______ side of the body and S2 receives its main input from _____ and maps _____ sides of the body.

Answer: opposite, S1, both

Name the 2 somatosensory cortices.

Name the 2 somatosensory cortices.

Answer:

• Primary somatosensory cortex (S1)
• Secondary somatosensory cortex (S2)

Two-point stimuli are perceived as one when many ________ neurons converge onto a single __________ neurons, which creates a ________ receptive field.

Two-point stimuli are perceived as one when many ________ neurons converge onto a single __________ neurons, which creates a ________ receptive field.

Answer: primary, secondary, large.

Where are sensations perceived?

Where are sensations perceived?

Answer: In the primary somatic cortex

Where do all sensory pathways synapse before arriving at the sensory cortex?

Where do all sensory pathways synapse before arriving at the sensory cortex?

Answer: Thalamus

Where do fine touch, vibration, and proprioception cross the midline?

Where do fine touch, vibration, and proprioception cross the midline?

Answer: In the medulla

Where do pain, temperature, and coarse touch cross the midline?

Where do pain, temperature, and coarse touch cross the midline?

Answer: In the spinal chord

Receptors send axons via the ________ of the spinal chord where they synapse on ________ in the medulla.

Receptors send axons via the ________ of the spinal chord where they synapse on ________ in the medulla.

Answer: dorsal column, dorsal column nuclei

The _______ system delivers touch information to the brain.

The _______ system delivers touch information to the brain.

Answer: dorsal column

The ________ of activated sensory neurons conveys information about stimulus location.

The ________ of activated sensory neurons conveys information about stimulus location.

Answer: spatial distribution

The ________ system detects body sensations including touch and pain.

The ________ system detects body sensations including touch and pain.

Answer: somatosensory

Stimulus to pacinian corpuscles produces a ________ electrical potential. When the potential is big enough, the receptor reaches ______ and fires an action potential.

Stimulus to pacinian corpuscles produces a ________ electrical potential. When the potential is big enough, the receptor reaches ______ and fires an action potential.

Answer: graded, threshold

_____ & _____ are slow-adapting receptors.

_____ & _____ are slow-adapting receptors.

Answer:

• merkel's discs
• ruffini endings

____ & ______ are fast-adapting receptors.

____ & ______ are fast-adapting receptors.

Answer:

• pacinian corpuscles 
• meissner corpuscles

Hair displacement open ________ sensitive channels on the dendrites of sensory neurons wrapped around the hair follicle.

Hair displacement open ________ sensitive channels on the dendrites of sensory neurons wrapped around the hair follicle.

Answer: stretch

All 3 cutaneous receptors follow the rules of _________.

All 3 cutaneous receptors follow the rules of _________.

Answer: labeled lines

Thermoreceptors for _____ are stimulated by ______.

Thermoreceptors for _____ are stimulated by ______.

Answer: hot/cold, changes in temperature

Nociceptors for _____ are stimulated by _____.

Nociceptors for _____ are stimulated by _____.

Answer: chemicals released from tissue damage

Mechanoreceptors for ______ are stimulated by _____.

Mechanoreceptors for ______ are stimulated by _____.

Answer: touch, force

T/F: Different sensory modalities are kept separate and processed by the same brain region.

T/F: Different sensory modalities are kept separate and processed by the same brain region.

Answer: false; they are processed by different brain regions

Why can the brain recognize distinct senses?

Why can the brain recognize distinct senses?

Answer: Labeled Lines

What is the energy that all senses use?

What is the energy that all senses use?

Answer: action potentials

______ occurs when the cerebral cortex interprets the meaning of sensations.

______ occurs when the cerebral cortex interprets the meaning of sensations.

Answer: perception

_______ occurs when nerve impulses arrive at the cerebral cortex.

_______ occurs when nerve impulses arrive at the cerebral cortex.

Answer: sensation

Basic principles of Genetic Knockdown?

Basic principles of Genetic Knockdown?

Answer: Silence genes by using a virus to introduce foreign non-coding RNA that Interfere with gene expression by blocking mRNA

An epitope tagged protein can be purified through ____ & _____.

An epitope tagged protein can be purified through ____ & _____.

Answer: Affinity chromatography, immunoprecipitation.

Describe a Fusion Protein: Epitope Tag

Describe a Fusion Protein: Epitope Tag

Answer: Tag an antibody to cDNA so the resulting protein can be easily purified.

In a yeast two hybrid system the ________ is not delivered by a plasmid.

In a yeast two hybrid system the ________ is not delivered by a plasmid.

Answer: Reporter gene.

What is the purpose of a Fusion Protein?

What is the purpose of a Fusion Protein?

Answer: To help us understand the interactions of a protein in a cell.

Describe a Fusion Protein: GFP Tag?

Describe a Fusion Protein: GFP Tag?

Answer: Tag a GFP to a cDNA that is then translated into a protein that will have a green fluorescent color

_______ libraries have to be used when studying promoter regions.

_______ libraries have to be used when studying promoter regions.

Answer: Genomic.

Component of a Reporter Assay Plasmid?

Component of a Reporter Assay Plasmid?

Answer:

• Regulatory sequence studied (i.e. promoter)
• Reporter gene (i.e. GFP & Luciferase)

What is the purpose of a Reporter Assay?

What is the purpose of a Reporter Assay?

Answer: To see if gene expression is happening or not through fluorescence.

What is the natural function of Restriction Enzymes in bacteria ?

What is the natural function of Restriction Enzymes in bacteria ?

Answer: To protect bacteria from bacteriophages (bacterial virus) by cutting up foreign unmethylated DNA

How do you select for cells that have recombinant plasmids?

How do you select for cells that have recombinant plasmids?

Answer: Grow cells on plate of intact antibiotic (B), and another plate with both antibiotics (G + B). Cells that grown on B but not G+B contain recombinant plasmids.

How do you select for cells that have taken up a plasmid?

How do you select for cells that have taken up a plasmid?

Answer: Grow cells on antibiotic that was not cleaved (B).

What is Blue/White selection?

What is Blue/White selection?

Answer:

Plasmid: Antibiotic Marker + LacZ.
Grow cells in a plate with X-Gal + Antibiotic.
Plasmid ligates to itself: resistant, blue.
Plasmid + insert: resistant, white.

If you insert a gene inside a tetracycline region, what will be the drug resistance of the resulting plasmid?

If you insert a gene inside a tetracycline region, what will be the drug resistance of the resulting plasmid?

Answer:

Ampicillin Resistant.
Tetracycline Sensitive.

What 2 methods are used to make cell competent to take up DNA (transfection)? How do they do it?

What 2 methods are used to make cell competent to take up DNA (transfection)? How do they do it?

Answer:

Treatment with CaCl2, Electroporation.
Make membrane permeable to plasmid.

How do we ensure that the gene of interest is inserted into a plasmid?

How do we ensure that the gene of interest is inserted into a plasmid?

Answer: Amplify the gene of interest using PCR.

What can cDNA be used for?

What can cDNA be used for?

Answer:

Define gene expression.
Starting material to clone genes.

How are cDNAs made?

How are cDNAs made?

Answer: Reverse Transcriptase.

Why do plasmids have to be pre-spliced?

Why do plasmids have to be pre-spliced?

Answer: Because bacteria can't splice human introns.

How do we create a PCR product we can insert into a plasmid?

How do we create a PCR product we can insert into a plasmid?

Answer: By designing primers containing the Restriction Enzyme cleavage site that are the same as the plasmids.

How can human insulin be made in bacteria?

How can human insulin be made in bacteria?

Answer: By using a plasmid that contains the human insulin gene and introducing it to bacteria to replicate. Then use purification to filter it.

T/F: Only endogenous genes of bacteria can be replicated.

T/F: Only endogenous genes of bacteria can be replicated.

Answer: False

Why is insulin no longer made by using the pancreas of animals?

Why is insulin no longer made by using the pancreas of animals?

Answer: It was not effective.

What are the advantages of Polylinkers?

What are the advantages of Polylinkers?

Answer: They provide more restriction sites for cloning.

What are other common features of vectors?

What are other common features of vectors?

Answer: Polylinkers, Strong Promoter, Ribosome Binding Sequence.

When restriction fragments are combined with a vector we have engineered a ___________?

When restriction fragments are combined with a vector we have engineered a ___________?

Answer: Recombinant DNA.

Why do plasmids have an ORI?

Why do plasmids have an ORI?

Answer: To ensure replication of the plasmid.

Plasmids replicate independent of chromosome. What does this mean?

Plasmids replicate independent of chromosome. What does this mean?

Answer: They are not incorporated into the bacterial genome.

Restriction Enzymes will only cleave DNA that is ___________.

Restriction Enzymes will only cleave DNA that is ___________.

Answer: Unmethylated